On Wed Jun 15, 2022 at 10:00 PM BST, Philip McGrath wrote: > According to > , "It is > acceptable for a free license to specify which jurisdiction's law > applies, or where litigation must be done, or both." Although I don't know anything about licensing, wouldn't this mean a company could, for example, publish software under a license that states that disputes must be resolved in some theoretical country that bans all free sharing of software (even if the owner wants to share it), then sue somebody who's modified the ostensibly free software for copyright infringement, winning because the country forbids any software sharing, and still have the license count as free? I'm probably misunderstanding this; surely there wouldn't be such a gaping hole in the FSF's free license definition?